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Environmental Engineering Multiple Questions And Answers- 150 MCQs on Environmental Engineering


Environmental Engineering Multiple Questions And Answers- MCQs on Environmental Engineering.

We have provided Enough 150 MCQs on Environmental Engineering. This questions will be used in most of the Civil Engineering Examinations like GATE etc. Take time to go through this sample questions and you will be familiar with the nature of questions.

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Environmental Engineering Multiple Questions And Answers- MCQs on Environmental Engineering


Environmental Engineering Multiple Questions And Answers



1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

2. The per capital consumption of a locality is affected by
i)    climatic conditions
ii)   quality of water
iii) distribution pressure
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?
a) use of metering system
b) good quality of water
c) better standard of living of the people
d) hotter climate
Ans:a

4. The  hourly variation factor is usually taken as
a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7
Ans:a

5. If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily con¬sumption on peak hourly demand will be
a) 100000m3
b) 150000m3
c) 180000m3
d) 270000 m3
Ans:d

6. The distribution mains are designed for
a) maximum daily demand
b) maximum hourly demand
c) average daily demand
d) maximum hourly demand on maxi¬mum day
Ans:d

7. As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical increase method gives
a) lesser value
b) higher value
c) same value
d) accurate value
Ans:a

8. The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method is
a) 9500
b) 9800
c) 10100
d) 10920
Ans:d

9. The suitable method of forecasting popu¬lation for a young and rapidly increasing city is
a) arithmetical increase method
b) geometrical increase method
c) incremental increase method
d) graphical method
Ans:b

10., The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum
a) at a distance R from the well
b) close to the well
c) at a distance R/2 from the well
d) none of the above
where R is the radius of influence
Ans:b

11. The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called
a) aquifers
b) aquiclude
c) filters
d) intakes
Ans:d

12. Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention (R)
a) N = y + R
b) y = N + R
c) R = N + y
d) R > (N + y)
Ans:a

13. The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is
a) air relief valve
b) reflux valve
c) pressure relief valve
d) sluice valve
Ans:b

14. The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about
a) 5 litres/sec
b) 50 litres/sec
c) 500 litres/sec
d) 1000 litres/see
Ans:b

15. As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have
a) more depth
b) less depth
c) more discharge
d) less discharge
Ans:c

16. Ground water is usually free from
a) suspended impurities
b) dissolved impurities
c) both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties
d) none of the above
Ans:a

17.   The polluted water is one which
a) contains pathogenic bacteria
b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use
c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use
d) is contaminated
Ans:b

18. Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?
a) dysentery
b) cholera
c) typhoid
d) maleria
Ans:d

19. The most common cause of acidity in water is
a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) nitrogen
Ans:a

20. The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than
a) 0.1 ppm
b) 0.01 ppm
c) 0.001 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm
Ans:c

21. The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is
a) 0.1 mg/litre
b) 1.5 mg/litre
c) 5 mg/litre
d) 10 mg/litre
Ans:b

22. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine the
a) hardness in water
b) turbidity in water
c) dissolved oxygen in water
d) residual chlorine in water
Ans:a

23. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted is
i)    presumptive coliform test
ii)   confirmed coliform test
iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans:d

24.     Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent
a) calcium carbonate
b) magnesium carbonate
c) sodium carbonate
d) calcium hydroxide
Ans:a

26. Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10
Ans:a

27. Turbidity is measured on
a) standard silica scale
b) standard cobalt scale
c) standard platinum scale
d) platinum cobalt scale
Ans:a

28. On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to
a) 10 ppm
b) 20 ppm
c) 30 ppm
d) 50 ppm
Ans:a

29. Residual chlorine in water is determined by
a) starch iodide method
b) orthotolidine method
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:c

30. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of
a) dissolved oxygen
b) residual chlorine
c) biochemical oxygen demand
d) dose of coagulant
Ans:b

31. If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal to
a) total alkalinity
b) total hardness
c) total hardness - total alkalinity
d) non carbonate hardness
Ans:a

32. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is about
a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm
b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm
Ans:b

33. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order of
a) 1 mg/litre
b) 10 mg/litre
c) 100 mg/litre
d) 1000 mg/litre
Ans:b

34. The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about
a) 5 to 10 cm/sec.
b) 15 to 30 cm/sec.
c) 15 to 30 cm/minute
d) 15 to 30 cm/hour
Ans:c

35. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
a) B
b) 2B
c) 4B
d) 8B
where B is the width of the tank
Ans:c

36. The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about
a) 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2
b) 1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2
c) 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2
d) 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2
Ans:a

37.     Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is about
a)      10 to 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Ans:c

38. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on
a) depth of tank
b) surface area of tank
c) both depth and surface area of tank
d) none of the above
Ans:b

39. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if
a) particle size is decreased
b) the surface area of tank is increased
c) the depth of tank is decreased
d) none of the above
Ans:d

40. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
a) increasing the depth of tank
b) decreasing the depth of tank
c) increasing the surface area of tank
d) decreasing the surface area of tank
Ans:c

41. The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to sedimentation with coagulation are generally
a) less and more
b) less and less
c) more and less
d) more and more
Ans:c

42. The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with
i) increase in turbidity of water
ii) decrease in turbidity of water
iii) increase in temperature of water
iv) decrease in temperature of water
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:b

43. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is
a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10
 Ans:c

44. The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as
a) 1 to 2 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 2 to 6 hours
d) 2 to 6 days
Ans:c

45. The alum, when added as a coagulant in water
a) does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation
b) does not affect pH value of water
c) increases pH value of water
d) decreases pH value of water
Ans:d

46. The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
a) sulphuric acid
b) copper sulphate
c) lime
d) sodium permanganate
Ans:c

47. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove
a) dissolved organic substances
b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases
c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
d) bacteria and colloidal solids
Ans:d

48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60
b) 100 to 150
c) 500 to 600
d) 1400 to 1500
Ans:a

49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Ans:a

50.   As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give
i)    slower filtration rate
ii)   higher filtration rate
iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c

51. Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters.
Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a

52. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to
a) excessive negative head
b) mud ball formation
c) higher turbidity in the effluent
d) low temperature
Ans:a

53. The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is about
a) 0.2 to 0.4
b) 0.4 to 1.0
c) 2 to 4
d) 5 to 7
Ans:c

54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about
a) 24 - 48 hours
b) 10-12 days
c) 2-3 months
d) 1-2 year
Ans:c

55. The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is
a) less than that of slow sand filters
b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
c) greater than that of rapid sand filters
d) equal to that of slow sand filters
Ans:c

56. Double filtration is used
a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of
b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
d) all of the above
Ans:a

57. Cleaning is done by
i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand
ii) back washing in slow sand filters
iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
iv) back washing in rapid sand filters
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c

58. Disinfection of water results in
a) removal of turbidity
b) removal of hardness
c) killing of disease bacteria
d) complete sterilisation
Ans:c

59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by
i)    decreasing the time of contact
ii)   decreasing the temperature of water
iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:d

60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to
a) applied chlorine
b) residual chlorine
c) sum of applied and residual chlorine
d) difference  of applied  and residual chlorine
Ans:d

61.   The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination
b) post chlorination
c) super chlorination
d) break point chlorination
Ans:c

62. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about
a) 10 to 15
b) 20 to 25
c) 30 to 35
d) 40 to 50
Ans:c

63. The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as
a) prechlorination
b) super chlorination
c) dechlorination
d) hypochlorination
Ans:d

64. The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is
a) ultra violet rays treatment
b) lime treatment
c) by using potassium permanganate
d) chlorination
Ans:a

65. Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of water ?
a) carbon dioxide
b) bleaching powder
c) sulphur dioxide
d) chloramines
Ans:c

66. In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above
Ans:a

67. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient chlorination at lower pH values is
a) smaller
b) larger
c) same
d) none of the above
Ans:a

68. Disinfection efficiency is
a) reduced at higher pH value of water
b) unaffected by pH value of water
c) increased at higher pH value of water
d) highest at pH value equal to 7
Ans:a

69. In lime-soda process
a) only carbonate hardness is removed
b) only non-carbonate hardness  is re-moved
c) lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate hardness
d) lime reduces the non-carbonate hard-ness and soda-ash removes the carbo¬nate hardness
Ans:c

70. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that
a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water
b) huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem
c) the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness
d) it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness
Ans:b

71. Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
a) sodium sulphate
b) copper sulphate
c) sodium chloride
d) calcium chloride
Ans:b

72. Activated carbon is used for
a) disinfection
b) removing hardness
c) removing odours
d) removing corrosiveness
Ans:c

73. As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are
a) heavier
b) stronger
c) costlier
d) less susceptible to corrosion
Ans:b

74. The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is
a) dead end system
b) grid iron system
c) radial system
d) ring system
Ans:a

75. The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is
a) ring system
b) dead end system
c) radial system
d) grid iron system
Ans:c

76. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern is
a) grid iron system
b) dead end system
c) ring system
d) radial system
Ans:a

77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of being strong, not easily corroded and long life but is heavy and brittle is
a) steel
b) cast iron
c) copper
d) reinforced cement concrete
Ans:b

78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system
i)    involves successive trials
ii)   takes economic aspects into account
iii)  is time consuming
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) all are correct
Ans:c

79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is neglected and fire demand is considered is
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) electrical analysis method
d) Hardy cross method
Ans:a

80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most suitable for long and narrow pipe
system ?
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) Hardy cross method
d) electrical analysis method
Ans:b

81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution system at street corners and where the pipe lines intersect is
a) check valve
b) sluice valve
c) safety valve
d) scour valve
 Ans:b

82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in the reverse direction is
a) reflux valve
b) sluice valve
c) air relief valve
d) pressure relief valve
Ans:a

83. Scour valves are provided
a) at street corners to control the flow of water
b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there
c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water
d) at every summit of rising mains
Ans:b

84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) intercepting sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:b

85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common sewer or point of immediate disposal is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) main sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:a

86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable sewerage system will be
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially combined system
d) partially separate system
Ans:a

87. Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is
a) 100 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 165 litres
d) 200 litres
Ans:b

88. Sewerage system is usually designed for
a) 10 years
b) 25 years
c)      50 years
d)      75 years
Ans:b

89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) rectangular sewer
d) none of the above
Ans:b

90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year with less intensity is
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially separate system
d) partially combined system
Ans:b

91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product
a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
b) requires treatment before disposal
c) creates hygenic problem
d) all of the above
Ans:b

92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to British Ministry of Health formula will be
a) 4 mm/hr
b) lOmm/hr
c) 20 mm/hr
d) 40 mm/hr
Ans:d

93.     The time of concentration is defined as
a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the inlet of sewer
b) the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
c) sum of (a) and (b)
d) difference of (a) and (b)
Ans:c

94.   The specific gravity of sewage is
a) much greater than 1
b) slightly less than 1
c) equal to 1
d) slightly greater than 1
Ans:d

95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec
b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec
d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec
Ans:b

96. The slope of sewer shall be
a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground
b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
c) zero
d) steeper than 1 in 20
Ans:a


97. The  design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)
b) 2xDWF
c) 3 x DWF
d) 6xDWF
Ans:d

98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to rainfall
b) rainfall + DWF
c) rainfall + 2 DWF
d) rainfall + 6 DWF
Ans:c

99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be
a) 15 cm and 100 cm
b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm
Ans:b

100. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is
a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in  transportation due to heavy weight
d) less life
Ans:c

101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is
a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section
Ans:b

102.   An egg shaped section of sewer
a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing velocity  at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct
Ans:b

103. The velocity of flow does not depend on
a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer
Ans:b

104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
d) none of the above
Ans:c

105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil
Ans:b

106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is
a) circular brick sewer
b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semi-elliptical sewer
d) horse-shoe type sewer
Ans:a

107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horse-shoe type sewer
d) semi-elliptical sewer
Ans:b

108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are
a) acidic and alkaline
b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic
d) both alkaline
Ans:b

109.   The pathogens can be killed by
a) nitrification
b) chlorination
c) oxidation
d) none of the above
Ans:b

110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?
a) higher temperature
b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand
d) none of the above
 Ans:d

111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for
a) 5-10 years
b) 15-20 years
c) 30-40 years
d) 40-50 years
Ans:b

112. Settling velocity increases with
a) specific gravity of solid particles
b) size of particles
c) depth of tank
d) temperature of liquid
Ans:c

113. Standard BOD is measured at
a) 20°C - 1day
b) 25°C- 3day
c) 20°C - 5day
d) 30°C- 5day
Ans:c

114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical
oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD
Ans:b

115. Select the correct statement.
a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does nof depend on time.
Ans:c

116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000
Ans:d

117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is
a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remain-ing    ,
c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BOD re-maining
Ans:b

118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 1.0
Ans:b

119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm
Ans:b

120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm
Ans:b

121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the total oxygen required to satisfy BOD, is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans:b

122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is
a) maximum at noon
b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight
d) same throughout the day
Ans:a

123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in
a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water
Ans:c

124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin
 Ans:b

125. Sewerage system is designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:d

126. Sewage treatment units are designed for
a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:c

127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of
a) a theodolite
b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods
d) a plane table
Ans:c

128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by
a) septic conditions
b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine
d) nitrogen
Ans:a

129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks
Ans:c

130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as
a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 2-4 hours
d) 12 hours
Ans:a

131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?
a) sludge digestion tank
b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment
d) trickling filters
Ans:a

132. Septic tank is a
i)    settling tank
ii)   digestion tank
iii) aeration tank
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:b

133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in
a) oxidation pond
b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons
d) trickling filters
Ans:b

134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are
a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
Ans:d

135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by
a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation
Ans:c

136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as
a) 4-8 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days
d) 3 months
Ans:c

137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of
a) sludge digestion
b) sludge disposal
c) sedimentation
d) filtration
Ans:b

138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that
a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
d) none of the above
Ans:a

139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0
 Ans:b

140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of
a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
Ans:a

141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500
Ans:c

142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is
a) 0
b) 1
c) infinity
d) none of the above
Ans:b

143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X
Ans:b

144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe
Ans:b

145. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
Ans:c

146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms, kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe
Ans:a

147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of
a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane
Ans:d

148. Most of the bacteria in sewage are
a) parasitic
b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic
d) anaerobic
Ans:b

149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of
a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers
b) disposing of sludge
c) increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs
d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks
Ans:b

150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of
a) oxidation
b) dehydration
c) reduction
d) alkalinization
Ans:a

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Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions Answers - MCQs

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Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions And Answers

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Thursday 7 September 2017

Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions And Answers MCQs- PDF

Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions And Answers  MCQs


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It contains questions you will probably encounter in the examination or interview, scholarship examinations and so on. It is therefore advisable for every civil engineer to get himself acquainted with this Building Materials Multiple Choice Questions And Answers  MCQs.

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Tuesday 5 September 2017

Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions And Answers - A Must Read 150 MCQs for Thermodynamics

Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions And Answers - A Must Read 150 MCQs for Thermodynamics.


Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions



These are some of the thermodynamics questions and answers to download. if you need the PDF of the questions, kindly  forward your email using the comment box to get it forwarded into your email.

1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d

2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
(a) Boyle's law    
(b) Charles'law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: d

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(a) Centigrade    
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit      
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Ans: d

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne              
(d) quintal
(e) newton.
Ans: a

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour              
(d) day
(e) year.
Ans: a

6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer      
(d) millimeter.
Ans: a

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.
Ans: b

8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given mass varies directly as
(a)     temperature    
(b)     absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.
Ans: c

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies
(a)     more volume  
(b)     less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behaviour
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a

10. General gas equation is
(a) PV=nRT      
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj
Ans: b

11. According to Dalton's law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.
Ans: c

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.
Ans: d

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars
Ans: c

14. A closed system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Ans: a

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to
(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.
Ans: b

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.
Ans: a

18. The pressure'of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3
(e) 5E/4.
Ans: d

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.
Ans: a

20. Superheated vapour behaves
(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.
Ans: d

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur
(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of - 273 °K
Ans: c

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at
(a) - 273 °K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure  
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.
Ans: c

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: d

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
(a) a temperature of - 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can't be attained.
Ans: a

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.
Ans: b

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41
Ans: c

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp - Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by
(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws
 Ans: d

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.
Ans: d

30. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under
(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.
Ans: b

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles' law  
(b) Joule's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Boyle's law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their
(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.
Ans: c

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all temperatures and pressures
(a) Charles' Law  
(b) Joule's Law
(c) Regnault's Law
(d) Boyle's Law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: c

34. An open system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy  crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
 Ans: c

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure remains constant
(a) Joule's law    
(b) Boyle's law
(c) Regnault's law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles' law.
Ans: e

36. Gases have
(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.
Ans: b

37. According to Avogadro's Hypothesis
(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature
(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
(c) product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
(d) gases have two values of specific heat
(e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems.
Ans: a

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value
(a) depends on the mass of the system like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) is always constant.
Ans: a

39. Work done in a free expansion process is
(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Ans: c

40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is known as
(a) Avogadro's hypothesis
(b) Dalton's law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule's law.
Ans: a

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of each constituent of the flue gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.
Ans: b

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work done will be equal to
(a) + v
(b) - ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.
Ans: c

43. An isolated system is one in which
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Ans: b

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in thermodynamic coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.
Ans: b

45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Ans: d

46. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and temperature, each molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume  proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume  proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.
Ans: e

47. Mixture of ice and water form a
(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.
Ans: d

48. Which of the following is the property of a system
(a)     pressure and temperature
(b)     internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.
Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not the intensive property
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Ans: d

51. Which of the following items is not a path function
(a) heat
(b) work
(c) kinetic energy
(d) vdp
(e) thermal conductivity.
Ans: e

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heattransferred
(e) mass of the system.
Ans: a

53. Heat and work are
(a) point functions
(b) system properties
(c) path functions
(d) intensive properties
(e) extensive properties.
Ans: c

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases at a given temperature and pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.
Ans: b

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be
(a) reversible process
(b) isothermal process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
(e) free expansion process.
Ans: b

56. Solids and liquids have
(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.
Ans: a

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double. The final temperature is
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c)  108°C
(d) 654°C
(e) 600°C
Ans: b

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of expansion
(a) pV"=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: b

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV" = C, then the process is known as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature    
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.
Ans: d

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant volume
(d) constant entropy
(e) N.T.P. condition.
Ans: a

62. The term N.T.P. stands for
(a) nominal temperature and pressure
(b) natural temperature and pressure
(c) normal temperature and pressure
(d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.
Ans: c

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume remains constant is known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) isentropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.
Ans: e

64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
(e) shows unpredictable behaviour.
Ans: c

65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
(b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
(c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other
(d) deals with heat engines
(e) does not exist.
Ans: c

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 20°C
(e) 60°C.
Ans: b

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro's hypothesis.
Ans: a

68. One watt is equal to
(a) 1 Nm/s
(b) 1 N/mt
(c) 1 Nm/hr
(d) 1 kNm/hr
(e) 1 kNm/mt.
Ans: a

69. Work done is zero for the following process
(a) constant volume
(b) free expansion
(c) throttling
(d) all Of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: d

71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V changes from 1 m  to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04ki\ojoules.
Ans: c

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
(c) 848kgfm/mol°K
(d) 427kgfm/mol°K
(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.
Ans: c

73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 77
(e) 79.
Ans: a

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.
Ans: d

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
(b) 83.14J/kmol°K
(c) 848J/kmol°K
(d) All J/kmol °K
(e) 735 J/kmol °K.
Ans: b

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are the functions of temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.
Ans: d

77. In a free expansion process
(a) work done is zero
(b) heat transfer is zero
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) work done is zero but heat increases
(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.
Ans: c

78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such a process is known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: e

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in
(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) both pressure and temperature
(d) variation of its constituents
(e) air flow
Ans: a

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension, then such a process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.
Ans: a

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible
(a) throttling
(b) free expansion
(c) constant volume and constant pressure
(d) hyperbolic and pV = C
(e) isothermal and adiabatic.
Ans: e

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process
(a) isothermal      
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied
(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not be encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working sub¬stance should be same
(c) when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-stance should be same
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference between hot body and working substance should be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a

85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.
Ans: b

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.
Ans: a

87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.
Ans: b

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to
(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.
Ans: d

89. Entropy change depends on
(a) heat transfer  
(b) mass transfer
(c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state
(e) change of pressure and volume.
Ans: a

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.
Ans: c

91. Isochoric process is one in which
(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.
Ans: c

92. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total   internal   energy   of  a   system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Ans: d

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one form to other is inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.
Ans: b

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Ans: b

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: c

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: c

98. According to first law of thermodynamics
(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Ans: c

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as
(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.
Ans: d

100. First law of thermodynamics
(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in
(a) raising its temperature
(b) raising its pressure
(c) raising its volume
(d) raising its temperature and doing external work
(e) doing external work.
Ans: d

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(a) reversible engine
(b) irreversible engine
(c) new engine
(d) petrol engine
(e) diesel engine.
Ans: a

103. Measurement of temperature is based on
(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics
(e) joule's law.
Ans: b

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
(a) properties of the medium/substance used
(b) condition of engine
(c) working condition
(d) temperature range of operation
(e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.
Ans: d

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when
(a) initial temperature is 0°K
(b) final temperature is 0°K
(c) difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
(d) final temperature is 0°C
(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.
Ans: b

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650°K
(b) 600°K
(c) 625°K
(d) 700°K
(e) 750°K.
Ans: a

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property of the working substance will change accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state then
(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.
Ans: d

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.
Ans:

110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistications
(e) desirable.
Ans: d

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistications
(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.
Ans: b

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
(a) constant pressure
(b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature
(d) constant enthaply
(e) any one of the above.
Ans: c

114. A diathermic wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b

115. An adiabatic wall is one which
(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) dos not exist.
Ans: a

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.
Ans: c

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football
(a) becomes hotter
(b) becomes cooler1
(c) remains at the same temperature
(d) may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
(e) attains atmospheric temperature.
Ans: b

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.
Ans: c

119. During throttling process
(a) heat exchange does not take place
(b) no work is done by expanding steam
(c) there is no change of internal energy of steam
(d) all of the above
(e) entropy decreases.
Ans: d

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as
(a) heat
(b) potential energy
(c) surface tension
(d) friction
(e) increase in pressure.
Ans: a

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a
sign of approaching
(a) fine weather  
(b) rains
(c) storm
(d) cold wave
(e) hot wave.
Ans: c

122. The unit'of universal gas constant is
(a) watts/°K
(b) dynes/°C
(c) ergscm/°K    
(d)erg/°K
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

123. Calorie is a measure of
(a) specific heat  
(b) quantity of heat
(c) thermal capacity  
(d)entropy
(e) work.
Ans: b

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to
(a) 760 mm Hg    
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) lOOmmHg.
Ans: c

125. Barometric pressure is equal to
(a) 760 mm Hg  
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) 100mm Hg.
Ans: a

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to
(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.
Ans: b

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of
(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of heat
(e) conservation of temperature.
Ans: b

128. A perpetual motion machine is
(a) a thermodynamic machine
(b) a non-thermodynamic machine
(c) a hypothetical machine
(d) a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion would violate the laws of thermodynamics
(e) an inefficient machine.
Ans: d

129. Kelvin Planck's law deals with
(a) conservation of heat
(b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work
(d) conversion fo work into heat
(e) conservation of mass.
Ans: c

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics
(a) heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source
(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by using refrigeration cycle.
(c) heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if COP of process is more than unity
(d) heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source without the aid of external energy
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

131. Thermal power plant works on
(a) Carnot cycle  
(b) Joule cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(d) Otto cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.
Ans: c

132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle
(a) carnot
(b) Stirling
(c) ericsson
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on
(a) working substance
(b) design of engine
(c) size of engine
(d) type of fuel fired
(e) temperatures of source and sink.
Ans: e

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
(a) gas engine
(b) well lubricated engine
(c) petrol engine
(d) steam engine
(e) reversible engine.
Ans: e

137. Carnot cycle is
(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
(c) a semi-reversible cycle
(d) a quasi static cycle
(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.
Ans: a

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two isentropics, and two constant volumes.
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle
(a)     more
(b)     less
(c) equal
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
(a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles
(c) quasi-static cycles
(d) semi-reversible cycles
(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.
Ans: a

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes is known as
(a) Otto cycle      
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle    
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.
Ans: c

142. Reversed joule cycle is called
(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.
Ans: c

143. Brayton cycle consists' of following four processes
(a) two isothermals and two isentropics
(b) two   isentropics   and   two   constant volumes
(c) two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle
(a) Carnot
(b) Ericsson
(c) Stirling
(d) Joule
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.
Ans: c

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.
Ans: a

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency
(a) Rankine
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Brayton
(e) Joule.
Ans: c

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase ni pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending  on application
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on ap-plication
(e) unpredictable.   "
Ans: b

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.
Ans: e

Thermodynamics as a course has been a major challenge to students. Most students find it difficult to pass the course. Therefore it will be very necessary to get these questions.

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